GRE general test consists of easy to moderate quantitative questions and moderate to difficult verbal reasoning
questions. The multiple choice questions dominate most of the paper where in the test takers have to select the
correct answer (or more than one correct answer in some cases) from the given options. Overall the exam is not a
difficult nut to crack provided that the candidate has practised the concepts and topics thoroughly and regularly
along with a healthy mix of practice and full-length tests.

Structure of GRE examination:

The examination contains three sections. The sections of the GRE examination are as follows-

  1. Quantitative section
  2. Verbal reasoning section
  3. Analytical Writing section

Quantitative section

The Quantitative section contains four major types of questions that cover various topics ranging from Arithmetic,
Algebra, Data Analysis, and Geometry. The types of questions are-

  1. Comparison type questions
  2. Multiple Choice Questions (select one answer type)
  3. Multiple Choice Questions (select one or more choices type)
  4. Numeric Entry Questions


Arithmetic questions include topics such as divisibility of numbers, prime numbers and composite numbers, their
factorization, arithmetic operations, their exponents and roots, percentages, ratios,and decimals amongst other


Algebra includes topics such as algebraic expressions, functions, equations, inequalities, graphs and intercepts,
simultaneous equations and equations to worded problems. Moreover, slopes of lines, graphs of functions, and
quadratic equations make their way into questions from time to time.


Geometry tests on topics such as triangles, circles, perpendicular lines, quadrilaterals, polygons and measurement in
degrees. Concepts like Pythagoras theorem, equilateral triangles, similarities are extremely important as well. It
is worth while to note that a candidate should be prepared for both 2D as well as 3D geometry questions involving
concepts of volume.

Data Analysis

The ability to handle data is an extremely important quality that many colleges and later in life, many recruiters
look into a candidate. Hence, this section becomes an undeniable part of GRE quantitative section. Test takers can
expect questions from topics such as mean, median, mode and standard variance. These concepts will be combined with
other concepts such as percentages, ratios,and proportions and will be in the form of tables, graphs,and charts.
Also included are the topics of conditional probability, probability distributions, Venn Diagrams, permutations and
combinations, probability related to compound and independent events. As these topics are taughtvastly in high
school level, candidates studying in the final year of high schooland candidates who have just completed their high
schoolcan easily prepare for the GRE general test’s math section.

In addition to keeping the above information in mind, there are some additional directions that any test taker should
keep in mind. They are enumerated as follows-

  • All the numbers used in the questions as well as the ones that are supposed to be used in the answers by the
    candidates are real numbers.
  • Geometric figures like circles, triangles,and polygons are not drawn to scale. They are just for reference.
    However, some obvious pointers are the fact that all straight lines shown are actually straight and all the
    shapes are their original representations.
  • Coordinate systems and figures such as x-y planes, number systems,and intercepts are all drawn to scale and the
    test taker can reference them for answering the questions.
  • Graphs, bar charts, pie charts and line graphs are also drawn to scale and therefore the test taker can make
    healthy assumptions to arrive at the answer.

Now coming to the question types-

Comparison type questions

Questions of quantitative comparison ask the candidates to compare between two values A and B. After the candidate
has determined the values of A and B, he/she has to choose from the four options given, the relationship between A
and B.Thus the test taker has to compare the quantity in column A with the quantity in column B.

The four options are self-explanatory and they are-

  • Quantity A is greater.
  • Quantity B is greater.
  • The two quantities are equal.
  • The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Comparison type questions sometimes are tricky and many a time the test taker falls into the trap and choose an
incorrect answer. Some general advice for answering these types of questions are-

  1. The last option “The relationship cannot be determined from the information given” is seldom used and always
    double check before marking that option. Generally, there will always be some sort of relationship between the
    quantities A and B.
  2. It is always advisable to avoid unnecessary computations and calculations in order to save time. Simplify the
    answer choices so that it is easy to compare them and to find the correct answer choice.
  3. Input numbers if there are algebraic equations involved and then compare A and B. In put n egative, positive and
    0 and onlyafter inputting compare between the two to be sure of the answer you get.
  4. Simplifying the comparison when there’s no other way out helpsin determining the answer. Try out a step by step
    simplification process for both quantities A and B and then decide.
Sample Question and Solutions
Question 1
Quantity A Quantity B
The least prime number greater than 24 The greatest prime number less than 28
  1. Quantity A is greater.
  2. Quantity B is greater.
  3. The two quantities are equal.
  4. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.


For the integers greater than 24, note that 25, 26, 27, and 28 are not prime numbers, but 29 is a prime number, as
are 31 and many other greater integers. Thus, 29 is the least prime number greater than 24, and Quantity A is 29.
For the integers, less than 28, note that 27, 26, 25, and 24 are not prime numbers, but 23 is a prime number, as are
19 and several other lesser integers. Thus, 23 is the greatest prime number less than 28, and Quantity B is 23.
The correct answer is Choice A; Quantity A is greater.

Question 2

Figure 1

Quantity A Quantity B
  1. Quantity A is greater.
  2. Quantity B is greater.
  3. The two quantities are equal.
  4. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.


From Figure 1, you know that PQR is a triangle and that point S is between points Pand R, so PS‹PR and
SR‹PR You are also given that PQ=PR. However, this information is not sufficient to compare PS and SR.
Furthermore, because the figure is not necessarily drawn to scale, you cannot determine the relative sizes of PS and
SR visually from the figure, though they may appear to be equal. The position of S can vary alongside PR anywhere
between P and R. Following are two possible variations of Figure 1, each of which is drawn to be consistent with the
information. PQ=PR.

Figure 2 Figure 3

Note that Quantity A is greater in Figure 2 and Quantity B is greater in Figure 3. Thus the correct answer is
Choice D, the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Source Link –

Multiple Choice Questions (select one answer type)

This type of question requires the test taker to select one answer choice out of the list of five choices given
in the examination.

Though pretty straightforward in directions and the type of questions given, still, it is better to keep in mind the
following tips-

  1. The candidate can arrive at the correct option by doing back calculations using all the answers to that
    particular question. Since it is known that only one option is correct amongst the five, putting the options
    into the questions and seeing whether they fit is a great way to reduce time.
  2. If a question requires approximation, check how much is needed first before going all out on the calculations.
    One idea is to scan the entire question before approximating any value to get a better grip on the solution that
    you are going to work out.
  3. The final tip is to check every question one last time before selecting the answer from the options.
Sample Question and Solutions
Question 1

If 5x+32=4-2x, what is the value of x ?

  1. -4
  2. -3
  3. 4
  4. 7
  5. 12


Solving the equation for x, you get 7x=-28, and so x=-4. The correct answer is Choice A,

Question 2

A certain jar contains 60 jelly beans ” 22 white, 18 green, 11 yellow, 5 red and 4 purple. If a jelly bean is to be
chosen at random, what is the probability that the jelly bean will be neither red nor purple?

  1. 0.09
  2. 0.15
  3. 0.54
  4. 0.85
  5. 0.91


Since there are 5 red and 4 purple jelly beans in the jar, there are 51 that are neither red nor purple and the
probability of selecting one of these is 51 ⁄ 60. Since all of the answer choices are decimals, you must
convert the fraction to its decimal equivalent, 0.85. Thus the correct answer is Choice D, 0.85.

Source Link –

Multiple Choice Questions (select one or more choices type)

This section is similar to the previous one except that it may have one or more than one correct answers to be
marked.And the candidate is to mark all the possible correct answers. It is important to note that there is no
credit for partially correct answers. There will not be any credit given unless all the correct choices are entered.
The question may or may not tell the candidate the number of options to select. Some tips to improve a test taker’s
score in such scenarios are as follows-

  1. It is to be noted whether the question implicitly specifies the number of answer choices that are to be
    selected. If it is not mentioned, then it is advisable that the test taker tries out all the options and then
    selects the choices that may apply to that particular question.
  2. Always determine the range of values that may fit into the answer to limit the number of available options. This
    elimination process helps the test taker arrive at the option(s) faster and hence save time.
  3. In this type of questions, it is very important to save time by avoiding lengthy calculations. The candidate
    must be able to recognize any patterns present to minimize the time required per question.
Sample Question and Solutions
Question 1

Which two of the following numbers have a product that is between “1 and 0?

Indicate both of the numbers.

  1. “20
  2. “10
  3. 2 “4
  4. 3 “2


For this question, you must select a pair of answer choices. The product of the pair must be negative, so the
possible products are (“20)(2“4), (“20)(3“2), (“10)(2“4), and
(“10)(3“2). The product must also be greater than “1. The first product is -20 ⁄ 24=-
(20 ⁄ 16) ‹ -1, the second product is -20 ⁄ 32=- (20 ⁄ 9) ‹ -1, and the
third product is -10 ⁄ 24=- (10 ⁄ 16) › -1, so you can stop there. The correct
answer consists of Choices B (“10) and C (2“4).

Question 2

Which of the following integers are multiples of both 2 and 3?

Indicate all such integers.

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 18
  5. 21
  6. 36


You can first identify the multiples of 2, which are 8, 12, 18 and 36, and then among the multiples of 2 identify the
multiples of 3, which are 12, 18 and 36. Alternatively, if you realize that every number that is a multiple of 2 and
3 is also a multiple of 6, you can identify the choices that are multiples of 6. The correct answer consists
of Choices C (12), D (18) and F (36).

Source Link –

More Problem Solving Sample Questions






More Problem Solving Select Many Sample Questions











Numeric Entry Questions

Numeric entry questions are different from the above three because the candidate has to enter either an integral or a
decimal value into the space (box) provided in the question or enter a fractional value into two distinct boxes- one
box for the numerator and another box for the denominator. In this part of the test, aspirants can use the keyboard
as well as the mouse to enter the desired values. Most of the answers can be easily determined from the information
given in the questions, and in somecases, a little tedious calculation is involved to solve the problem.

Since this section is a deviation from the aforementioned sections, it would be wise to look into a few tips
pertaining to handle these questions.

  1. It is always essential that the test taker answers the question that is asked. As there are no answer choices to
    guide the candidate, hence it is advisable to be extra careful while answering these questions. Paying extra
    heed to units and conversion factors usually pay off in this section.
  2. Roundingoff answers is another issue that needs to be addressed properly in this section. For example, 35.8 need
    to be rounded off to 36. Also, another important point is to round off only in the final step and not in the
    steps preceding that to maintain the necessary degree of accuracy.
  3. Finally, check if the answer fits logically in respect of the question asked as that helps detect many fine
    errors that may otherwise go unnoticed.

Some directions to follow in this section-

  • First, the candidate has to click on the box given and then only the cursor will appear.
  • If the test taker needs to erase something, the backspace key can be used.
  • For a negative sign, the candidate has to type a hyphen, for a decimal point, the period needs to be typed.
  • The negative sign can be removed by pressing the hyphen again. The hyphen disappears, but the number remains.
  • The transfer button will transfer the value calculated from the online calculator and will shift the answer
    directly to the answer box.
  • Equivalent answers such as 8.50 and 8.5 are both considered equal and correct. The exact answer needs to be
    typed unless mentioned in the question to round off.
Sample Question and Solutions
Question 1

Rectangle R has length 30 and width 10, and square S has length 5. The perimeter of S is what fraction of the
perimeter of R?


The perimeter of R is 30+10+30+10=80, and the perimeter of S is (4)(5)=20.Therefore, the perimeter of S is 20 ∕
80 of the perimeter of R. To enter the answer 20 ∕ 80, you should enter the numerator 20 in the top box and
the denominator 80 in the bottom box. Because the fraction does not need to be reduced to lowest terms, any fraction
that is equivalent to 20 ∕ 80 is also considered correct, as long as it fits in the boxes. For example, both
of the fractions 2 ∕ 8 and 1 ∕ 4 are considered correct. Thus the correct answer is 20 ∕
80 (or any equivalent fraction).

Question 2

Figure 7Results of a Used-Car Auction

Small Cars Large Cars
Number of cars offered 32 23
Number of cars sold 16 20
The projected sales total for cars offered (in thousands) $70 $150
Actual sales total (in thousands) $41 $120

For the large cars sold at an auction that is summarized in the table above, what was the average sale price per car?



From Figure 7, you see that the number of large cars sold was 20 and the sales total for large cars was $120,000 (not
$120). Thus the average sale price per car was ($120,000) ∕ 20=$6,000. The correct answer is $6,000
(or equivalent)

(Note that the comma in 6,000 will appear automatically in the answer box in the computer-delivered test.)

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More Numeric Entry Sample Questions











Verbal reasoning section

The verbal reasoning section is perhaps the most important section in the whole of the GRE examination. This is
because this section is generally a bit on the tougher side. Non-native English speaking candidates generally face
difficulties in this section owing to the use of vocabulary. The verbal reasoning section consists of three kinds of

  1. Reading Comprehension
  2. Text Completion
  3. Sentence Equivalence

GRE Verbal Reasoning Sample Questions

  1. Reading Comprehension Sample Questions
  2. Reading Comprehension Select In Passage Sample Questions
  3. Reading Comprehension Select Many Sample Questions
  4. Text Completion Sample Questions
  5. Sentence Equivalence Sample Questions

Reading Comprehension

This section is designed to test various skills and a wide range of abilities present in the candidate. Some of them

  • Understanding the entirety of the passage and its significance
  • Understanding the context of the words used in the passage and their individual meanings
  • Summarizing the passage so as to reduce its length but ultimately preserve its essence
  • Drawing conclusions from the author’s statements and inferences
  • Reasoning about a certain situation/thing/someone from missing and inc